CUET 2024 Physics MCQs for Practice

Physics MCQ Question Answers for CUET 2024

Physics MCQs– Practice the Physics MCQs suitable for various Entrance Exams including CUET. Learn and practice Physics questions and answers. Physics MCQ questions are very helpful for various competitive exams. CUET is a Common University Entrance Test that is now mandatory to take admission to Central Universities in India. Physics MCQ questions are based on the latest CUET 2024 exam pattern and other entrance exams, so that you can have a fair idea about exam trends that will be followed for various entrance exams.

Physics Test 1 – 20 Questions
Physics Test 2 – 20 Questions
Physics Test 3 – 20 Questions
Physics Test 4 – 20 Questions

1. The pressure at the bottom of a tank of liquid is not proportional to:

a.the area of the liquid surface

b.the acceleration

c.the height of the liquid

d.the density of the liquid

2. The difference in the variation of resistance with temperature in a metal and a semiconductor arises essentially due to the difference in the:

a.type of bonding

b.variation of the number of charge carriers with temperature

c.crystal structure

d.variation of scattering mechanism with temperature

3. To convert a galvanometer into an ammeter, we should connect:

a.a high resistance in parallel with it

b.a high resistance in series with it

c.a low resistance in parallel with it

d.a low resistance in series with it

4. Two cells of 1.25 V and 0.75 V are connected in parallel. The effective voltage is:

a.1.25 V

b.0.5 V

c.2 V

d.0.75 V

5. Which of the following quantities is not carried by light?

a.Linear momentum

b.Energy

c.Angular momentum

d.None of the above

6. The focal length of convex mirror is 20 cm, its radius of curvature will be:

a.30 cm

b.10 cm

c.20 cm

d.40 cm

7. The reactance of an inductor connected with DC voltage is:

a.1Ω

b.none of these

c.zero

d.infinity

8. Which one of the following can produce maximum induced emf?

a.50 A 500 Hz AC

b.50 A 50 Hz AC

c.100 A DC

d.50 A DC

9. A passenger in a moving train tosses a coin. If the coin falls behind him, the train must be moving with:

a.a deceleration

b.an acceleration

c.an uniform speed

d.any of these

10. The minimum velocity (in m/s) with which a car driver must traverse a flat curve of radius 150 m and coefficient of friction 0.6 to avoid skidding is:

a.15 m/s

b.25 m/s

c.60 m/s

d.30 m/s

11. If the mass of bob of simple pendulum is increased by 50%, the time period of the pendulum:

a.does not change

b.none of these

c.increases

d.decreases

12. In a common-base mode of transistor, the collector current is 5.488 mA for an emitter current of 5.60 mA. The value of the base current amplification factor (β) will be:

a.49

b.48

c.50

d.51

13. When p-n junction diode is forward biased, then:

a.both the depletion region and barrier height are increased

b.both the depletion region and barrier height are reduced

c.the depletion region is widened and barrier height is reduced

d.the depletion region is reduced and barrier height is increased

14. When a simple pendulum is rotated in a vertical plane with constant angular velocity, centripetal force is:

a.same at all points

b.maximum at highest point

c.zero

d.maximum at lowest point

15. When a satellite going round the earth in a circular orbit of radius r and speed v loses some of its energy, then r and v change as:

a.r will decrease and v will increase

b.r and v both will decrease

c.r will increase and v will decrease

d.r and v both will increase

16. In each heart beat, a heart pump 80 ml of blood at an average pressure of 100 mm of Hg. What will be the power output of the heart? (Assume 60 heart beats per minute)

a.1W

b.1.06W

c.0.5W

d.2.75W

17. Which of the following substances has the highest value of the Youngs modulus?

a.Wood

b.Steel

c.Plastic

d.Rubber

18. A 50 mH coil carries a current of 2 A, the energy stored in joule is:

a.0.5

b.0.05

c.0.1

d.1

19. In simple harmonic motion, the particle is:

a.neither accelerated nor retarded

b.alternately accelerated and retarded

c.always accelerated

d.always retarded

20. A cut diamond sparkles because of its:

a.emission of light by the diamond

b.absorption of light by the diamond

c.high refractive index

d.hardness

21. In an equilateral triangle ABC, AL, BM and CN are the medians . Which of the following would correctly represent the resultant of two forces represented
by BC and BA ?

a.2AL

b.AC

c.2CN

d.2BM

22. A mass M is suspended from a spring of negligible mass. The spring is pulled a little and then released, so that the mass executes SHM of time period T. If the mass is increased by m, the time period becomes 5T/3. Then the ratio of m/M is:

a.16/9

b.5/3

c.25/9

d.3/5

23. A lorry and a car, moving with the same KE are brought to rest by applying the same retarding force then:

a.car will come to rest in a shorter distance

b.none of the above

c.lorry will come to rest in a shorter distance

d.both will come to rest in the same distance

24. In L-R circuit, the time constant is given by:

a.R/L

b.L/R

c.LR

d.1/LR

25. The time period of a simple pendulum at the centre of earth is:

a.infinite

b.none of these

c.less than zero

d.zero

26. Image formed by convex mirror is:

a.inverted

b.virtual

c.enlarged

d.real

27. For gases:

a.isothermal elasticity is greater than adiabatic elasticity

b.none of the above

c.both the elasticities are equal

d.adiabatic elasticity is greater than isothermal elasticity

28. In the case of SHM, if the particle is at the mean position, then the particle is in:

a.none of these

b.stable equilibrium

c.unstable equilibrium

d.neutral equilibrium

29. A particle moves along y-axis according to equation y = 3 + 4 cos wt. The motion of particle is:

a.not SHM

b.oscillatory but not SHM

c.none of the above

d.SHM

30. The size of the image, if an object of 2.5m height is placed at a distance of 10 cm from a concave mirror is: (Take radius of curvature of concave mirror = 30 cm)

a.5.6 m

b.9.2 m

c.10.5 m

d.7.5 m

31. Two charged particles each of mass m and charge q are projected in a uniform magnetic field B with the same speed as such planes of motion of particles are perpendicular to magnetic field B, then:

a.the magnetic forces on them are same to each other

b.they move on circular path of same radii

c.all of the above

d.the kinetic energies of particles are same to each other

32. During swinging of simple pendulum:

a.the mechanical energy of bob does not remain constant in the absence of air

b.the work done by gravitational force is zero

c.the work done by tension force is always zero

d.the mechanical energy remains constant in the presence of air resistance

33. Which of the following phenomena can be used to analyse a beam of light into its component wavelength?

a.Interference

b.Polarisation

c.Reflection

d.Refraction

34. When the body is moving up, the acceleration due to gravity will be:

a.downward

b.upward

c.nil

d.sideways

35. If Youngs double slit experiment, is performed in water:

a.there will be no fringe

b.the fringe width will remain unchanged

c.the fringe width will decrease

d.the fringe width will increase

36. The time period of artificial satellite in a circular orbit of radius R is T. The radius of the orbit in which time period is 8T is:

a.3R

b.2R

c.5R

d.4R

37. A man walks 4 m towards East and then 3 m towards North and there he fixes a pole 12 m high. The distance between the starting point and tip of the pole in space is

a.13 m

b.11 m

c.19 m

d.7 m

38. Two parallel wires carrying current in the same direction attract each other because of:

a.electric forces between them

b.mutual inductance between them

c.magnetic forces between them

d.potential difference between them

39. If there were a smaller gravitational effect, which of the following forces do you think would alter in some respect?

a.Electrostatic force

b.Archimedes uplift

c.Nuclear force

d.Viscous force

40. The inductance of a coil in which a current of 0.1 A increasing at the rate of 0.5A/s represents a power flow of 1/2 W, is:

a.20 H

b.10 H

c.2 H

d.8 H

41. The sensitivity of a potentiometer can be increased by:

a.decreasing the length of potentiometer wire

b.increasing the emf of the cell used in primary circuit

c.all the above methods

d.increasing the length of potentiometer wire

42. Two bodies have same mass and speed, then:

a.both B and C are correct

b.the ratio of momentums is not determined

c.their momentums are same

d.the ratio of their magnitudes of momentum is one

43. Which one of the following is not the advantage of semiconductor device in the electron tubes?

a.Greater efficiency

b.Low consumption of power for cathode heating

c.Unlimited life

d.No warming up time for switching

44. Two vessels having equal volume contain molecular hydrogen at one atmosphere and helium at two atmospheres respectively. If both samples are at the same temperature the mean velocity of hydrogen molecules is:

a.√2 times that of helium

b.half that of helium

c.twice that of helium

d.equal to that of helium

45. The time period of a charged particle undergoing a circular motion in a uniform magnetic field is independent of its:

a.charge

b.speed

c.mass

d.magnetic induction

46. The time period of an earths satellite in circular orbit is independent of:

a.both the mass and radius of the orbit

b.the mass of the satellite

c.neither the mass of the satellite nor the radius of its orbit

d.radius of its orbit

47. The core of any transformer is laminated so as to:

a.increase the secondary voltage

b.make it robust and strong

c.reduce the energy loss due to eddy currents

d.make it light weight

48. A proton moving in a straight line enters a strong magnetic field along the field direction. How will its path and velocity change?

a.Path is same but velocity increase

b.Path is same and velocity remains constant

c.Path is same but motion is retarded

d.Path is circular but speed constant

49. Two wires of the same material and length are stretched by the same force. Their masses are in the ratio 3:2, their elongations are in the ratio:

a.2:3

b.4:9

c.9:4

d.3:2

50. A point source generates 10 J of light energy in 2 s. The luminous flux of source is:

a.10 lumen

b.5 lumen

c.50 lumen

d.none of these

51. Which of the following statements about the centripetal and centrifugal forces is correct?

a.Centripetal force is directed opposite to the centrifugal force

b.Centripetal force is experienced by the observer at the centre of the circular path described by the body

c.Centripetal force balances the centrifugal force

d.Both centripetal force and centrifugal force act on the same body

52. A bullet fired into a fixed target loses half of its velocity after penetrating 3 cm. How much further it will penetrate before coming to rest, assuming that it faces constant resistance to motion?

a.1.5 cm

b.2.0 cm

c.3.0 cm

d.1.0 cm

53. If a metal wire of length L, having area of cross-section A and Youngs modulus Y, behaves as a spring of spring constant k. The value of k is:

a.YL/A

b.YA/2L

c.YA/L

d.2YA/L

54. Two resistances are connected in parallel and a current is sent through the combination. The current divides itself:

a.in the inverse ratio of resistances

b.equally in both the resistances

c.in none of the above manner

d.in the direct ratio of resistances

55. A wire of resistance R is stretched so that its length increases by 10%. The resistance of the wire increases by:

a.15%

b.11%

c.28%

d.21%

56. An object fall from rest. In the last second of its fall, it covers half of the total distance. If g = 9.8 m s-2 then the total height of the fall is

a.50 m

b.19.6 m

c.57 m

d.78.4 m

57. In an interference pattern the position of zeroth order maxima is 4.8 mm from a certain point P on the screen. The fringe width is 0.2 mm. The position of second maxima from point P is:

a.5 mm

b.5.2 mm

c.5.1 mm

d.40 mm

58. What happen to the elastic property of a substance after annealing (cooling slowly after heating)?

a.Becomes zero

b.Increases

c.Decreases

d.Remains as such

59. An alloy is prepared by mixing equal volume of two metals. The specific gravity of alloy is 4. But when equal masses of two same metals are mixed together, the specific gravity of alloy is 3. The specific gravity of each metal is:

a.4, 8

b.6, 2

c.2, 4

d.6, 4

60. An iron ball is weighed in air and then in water by a spring balance:

a.its weight in water is more than in air

b.its weight is same both in air and water

c.its weight is zero in water

d.its weight in air is more than in water

61. Which of the following statements is false for a particle moving in a circle with a constant angular speed?

a.The velocity vector is tangent to the circle

b.The acceleration vector is tangent to the circle

c.The velocity and acceleration vectors are perpendicular to each other

d.The acceleration vector points to the centre of the circle

62. In which of the following cases the potential energy is defined?

a.Non-conservative force only

b.Neither conservative nor non-conservative forces

c.Conservative force only

d.Both conservative and non-conservative forces

63. A particle of mass 10 kg is executing SHM of time period 2 s and amplitude 0.25 m. The magnitude of maximum force on the particle is:

a.zero

b.5 N

c.40.6 N

d.24.65 N

64. If in a cinema hall, the distance between the projector and the screen is increased by 2%, keeping everything else unchanged, then the intensity of illumination on the screen is:

a.increased by 2%

b.decreased by 4%

c.increased by 4%

d.decreased by 2%

65. If a current is passed through a spring then the spring will:

a.compress

b.expand

c.none of these

d.remain same

66. A train runs past a telegraph pole in 15 second, and through a tunnel 450 metre long in 45 s. The length of the train is

a.450 m

b.425 m

c.325 m

d.225 m

67. Two pure inductor coils of self-inductance L each are connected in series, the net inductance is:

a.L/2

b.2L

c.L

d.L/4

68. A body weighs 5 N in air and 2 N when immersed in a liquid. The buoyant force is:

a.3 N

b.5 N

c.2 N

d.7 N

69. A light spring balance hangs from the hook of the other light spring balance and a block of mass M kg hangs from the former one. Then the true statement about the scale reading is:

a.the reading of the two scales can be anything but the sum of the reading will be M kg

b.the scale of the lower one reads M kg and of the upper one zero

c.both the scales read M kg each

d.both the scales read M/2 kg

70. If the time-displacement graph of a particle is parallel to the time-axis, the velocity of particle is:

a.variable

b.zero

c.equal to its acceleration numerically

d.infinity

71. As a bubble comes from the bottom of a lake to the top, its radius:

a.increases

b.decreases

c.becomes zero

d.does not change

72. For a perfect gas if:

a.T is given V is uniquely determined

b.T is given P is uniquely determined

c.P and V are given T is uniquely determined

d.T is given P and V both are uniquely determined

73. A virtual image larger than the object can be obtained by:

a.convex mirror

b.concave mirror

c.concave lens

d.plane mirror

74. A horizontal force of 10 N is necessary to just hold a block stationary against a wall. The coefficient of friction between the block and the wall is 0.2. The weight of the block is:

a.50N

b.2N

c.20N

d.100N

75. We write the relation for Boyles law in the form PV = C, when the temperature remains constant. In this relation the magnitude of C depends upon:

a.the nature of the gas used in the experiment

b.the quantity of the gas enclosed

c.the magnitude of g in the laboratory

d.the atmospheric pressure

76. In a watch the average angular velocity is maximum for the tip of:

a.seconds hand

b.minutes hand

c.equal for all hands

d.hours hand

77. Mark correct option.

a.Mechanical energy of a system remains constant

b.None of the above

c.If internal forces are non-conservative, the net work done by internal forces must be zero

d.The negative change in potential energy is equal to work done

78. A current loop placed in a magnetic field behaves like a:

a.all are true

b.magnetic dipole

c.magnetic pole

d.magnetic substance

79. If a system undergoes contraction of volume, then the work done by the system is:

a.negative

b.negligible

c.positive

d.zero

80. When we apply reverse bias to a junction diode, it:

a.raises the potential barrier

b.greatly increases the majority carrier current

c.greatly increases the minority carrier current

d.lowers the potential barrier

81. A stone falls freely from rest and the total distance covered by it in the last second of its motion equals the distance covered by it in the first three second of its motion. The stone remains in air for

a.7 s

b.6 s

c.4 s

d.5 s

82. Ray optics fails when the size of the obstacle is:

a.less than the wavelength of light

b.A and B both

c.5 cm

d.3 cm

83. If a body loses half of its velocity on penetrating 3 cm in a wooden block, then how much will it penetrate more before coming to rest?

a.2cm

b.1cm

c.3cm

d.4cm

84. Calculate the velocity of image with respect to observer if an observer is walking away from the plane mirror with 6 m/s.

a.6 m/s

b.12 m/s

c.3 m/s

d.-6 m/s

85. Youngs modulus for perfectly inelastic body is:

a.infinity

b.finite

c.zero

d.one

86. The internal energy U is a unique function of any state because change in U:

a.corresponds to an adiabatic process

b.corresponds to an isothermal process

c.does not depend upon path

d.depend upon path

87. A projectile is projected at an angle 60 degree with horizontal with speed 10 m/s. The minimum radius of curvature of the trajectory described by the projectile is:

a.10 m

b.2.55 m

c.none of these

d.2 m

88. If the distance between the two particles is increased by 2%, then the force of attraction between them will:

a.decrease by 6%

b.increase by 4%

c.decrease by 4%

d.increase by 6%

89. The most efficient heat engine is one which is:

a.none of the above

b.reversible

c.driven by high speed diesel

d.irreversible

90. A p-n junction diode is reverse biased. The resistance measured by an ohmmeter connected across it will be:

a.zero

b.high

c.infinite

d.low

91. For a particle moving along a circular path with a constant speed, the acceleration is constant in:

a.magnitude

b.direction

c.both magnitude and direction

d.neither magnitude nor direction

92. The maximum velocity of a particle, executing simple harmonic motion with an amplitude 7 mm, is 4.4 m/s. the period of oscillation is:

a.0.01 s

b.10 s

c.0.1 s

d.100 s

93. The speed of a particle moving in a circle is increasing. The dot product of its acceleration and velocity is:

a.negative

b.zero

c.may be +ve or –ve

d.positive

94. Significant motion for the molecules of a monoatomic gas corresponds to:

a.translatory

b.none of these

c.rotatory

d.vibratory

95. Which of the following is/are not conservative force?

a.Electrostatic force in the coulomb field

b.Frictional force

c.All of the above

d.Gravitational force

96. To use a moving coil galvanometer as an ammeter one must connect:

a.low resistance in series with the coil

b.high resistance in series with the coil

c.low resistance in parallel with the coil

d.high resistance in parallel with the coil

97. Convergence of concave mirror can be decreased by dipping in:

a.both A and B

b.water

c.oil

d.none of these

98. A stone of mass 0.3 kg attached to a 1.5 m long string is whirled around in a horizontal circle at a speed of 6 m/s. The tension in the string is:

a.7.2N

b.10N

c.20N

d.none of these

99. A positive charge is moving upwards in a magnetic field which is towards north. The particle will be deflected towards:

a.east

b.west

c.south

d.north

100. In the case of SHM, at the time of maximum kinetic energy:

a.potential energy is maximum

b.potential energy must not be zero

c.potential energy must be zero

d.potential energy is minimum

Also See

- CUET Languages MCQs for 2024 exam
  CUET Subjects MCQs for 2024 exams

CUET 2024 Physics MCQ Question Answers – 100 MCQs for Practice

Physics MCQ Question Answers for CUET 2024

CUET Languages MCQs for 2024 exam

CUET Subjects MCQs for 2024 exams

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