AFCAT (II) 2023 exam pattern and Complete Syllabus
- For the preparation of the examination, a candidate should go through the exam pattern first. By going through the exam pattern candidate will get an estimate about the marking criteria.
- Time Duration: 02 hours
- Number of Questions: 100
- Marking Criteria: +3 for each correct answer
- Negative Marking: -1 for each incorrect answer
- Number of Sections: 4 (Verbal ability, Numerical Ability, General Awareness and Reasoning and Military aptitude)
- Mode of Examination: Online
AFCAT (II) 2023 Syllabus
- AFCAT Syllabus for General Awareness : History, Sports, Geography, Environment, Civics, Basic Science, Defence, Art, Culture, Current Affairs, Politics etc.
- AFCAT Syllabus for Verbal Ability in English: Comprehension, Error Detection, Sentence Completion, Synonyms, Antonyms and Testing of Vocabulary.
- Numerical Ability – Decimal Fraction, Simplification, Average, Profit & loss, Percentage, Ratio & Proportion and Simple interest.
- Reasoning and Military Aptitude Test – Verbal Skills and Spatial Ability.
- AFCAT (II) 2023 Notification
- AFCAT (II) 2023 Application
- AFCAT (II) 2023 FAQs
- AFCAT Admit Cards
- AFCAT Eligibility for Flying Branch
- AFCAT Eligibility for Technical Branches
- AFCAT Eligibility for Ground Duty Branches
Scheme of Syllabus (EKT 2023 – Technical Branch):
EKT (Engineering Knowledge Test) is the examination aimed at testing the basic knowledge of engineering required for the technical branch. Technical branch includes course of Aeronautical Engineering (Electrical and Mechanical). This examination is pitched at pre- final to final year engineering level. Total 75 Objective type questions will be asked in the examination and the duration is 01 hour.
The pattern of examination includes two parts –
- General Engineering (40 questions) – Modern Physics, Chemistry, Mathematics, Computers, Electrical, Electronics, Mechanical Engineering and
- Specialist Paper for each Engineering discipline (35 questions) – Computer and Electronics, Mechanical, Electronics and Communication Engineering, Electrical and Instrumentation Engineering and Aeronautical Engineering (Mechanical)
AFCAT EKT Exam 2023
- All applicants whose online applications have been successfully submitted will be called for Air Force Common Admission Test (AFCAT) and Engineering Knowledge Test (EKT) (applicable only for candidates applying for technical branch).
- EKT would be for 45 minutes and conducted immediately after AFCAT.
- The duration of AFCAT 2023 Exam will be 2 Hours and EKT exam will be for 45 mins.
Candidates who will clear the AFCAT exam 2023 will be called for further SSB interview process which is also known as AFSB interview. AFSB stands for air force selection board which are located at Mysore, Dehradun, Varanasi and Gandhinagar.
How and what is required in the process of AFKAT EKT
- Selection will be based on score in Engineering Knowledge Test (EKT) (applicable to technical posts only) & Air Force Common Admission Test 2022.
- After qualifying AFCAT & EKT, contenders will be invited for Medical Test, Intelligence Test, Group Test, Psychological Test and Interview Test round organized by Air Force Selection Boards (AFSBs).
- All of applicants of Flying Branch should to attempt for Computerized Pilot Selection System (CPSS), Pilot Aptitude Battery Test (PABT).
- AFCAT Exam will be of two hours duration and will contain multiple choice questions on verbal ability, numerical ability, reasoning, general awareness and military aptitude.
- Candidates opting for ground duty (technical) branch to pass both AFCAT and EKT.
Candidates who are short-listed on the basis of AFCAT/EKT will be called for further testing. The testing would consist of three stages as given below:-
- Stage-I- Test consisting of Intelligence Test,
- Stage-II- Testing consisting of Psychological, Group Tests and Interview and For Flying Branch, Computerized Pilot Selection System (CPSS) would be administered to eligible candidates. The Training is scheduled to commence in the first week of January 2018 for all courses. Duration of training for Flying and Ground Duty (Technical) Branches is 74 weeks and that of Ground Duty (Non-technical) Branches is 52 weeks.
One common test of 100 questions is to be solved by all candidates in 2 hours. Technical Branch candidates have an addition test of EKT, both tests are objective. Successful candidates get a chance to appear for AFSB, and recommended candidates can be called for training based on their rank in the merit list and subject to medical fitness.
- IAF will conduct AFCAT written test in Offline Mode.
- Questions in the AFCAT question Paper, shall carry of 300 marks.
- Question will have four section in which each section containing questions from different subjects.
- Each question have 04 options, in which you need to mark one appropriate answer.
- Each question carry of 03 marks and each wrong answer deduct 1/3 or 1 mark.
- Total time duration will be 02 hours (120 Minutes).
- IAF will conducting EKT written test in Offline Mode.
- EKT would be for 45 minutes and conducted immediately after AFCAT exam on same day.
Engineering Knowledge Test Syllabus
- Here you can get the detailed topic wise EKT Syllabus with exam pattern. Contenders can make use of the provided contents for their practice and try to score best marks in going to appear exam.
EKT SYLLABUS FOR COMPUTER SCIENCE ENGINEERING:
- Fundamental Engineering: Engineering Mathematics, Engineering Physics, Engineering Drawing.
- Specialization Branch Topics : Analogy and Digital Electronics, Electronic Devices, Computer Networks, Network Theory Design, Switching Theory, Information Technology.
- Allied Engineering: Electrical Engineering, Control Engineering, . Telecommunication Systems, Microwave Engineering, Antenna and Wave Propagation, Radar Theory, Instrumentation.
EKT SYLLABUS FOR ELECTRICAL AND ELECTRONICS ENGINEERING:
- Fundamental Engineering : Engineering Mathematics, Engineering Physics, Engineering Drawing.
- Specialization Branch Topics : Analog and Digital Electronics, Electrical Engineering, Electronic Devices, Control Engineering, Telecommunication Systems, Microwave Engineering, Antenna and Wave Propagation.
- Allied Engineering Topics : Instrumentation, Computer Networks, Network Theory Design, Switching Theory, Information Technology, Radar Theory,
EKT SYLLABUS FOR MECHANICAL ENGINEERING:
- Fundamental Engineering: Engineering Mathematics, Engineering Physics, Engineering Graphics/ Engineering Drawing.
- Specialization Branch Topics : Engineering Mechanics, Thermodynamics, Theory of Machines, Fluid mechanics/Hydraulic Machines, Manufacturing Science, Materials Science, Machine Drawing.
- Allied Engineering: Automotive Engineering, Power Plant Engineering, Industrial Engineering, Flight Mechanics, Aircraft Structures, Aerodynamics.
AFCAT Examination Centres:
Ambala, Amritsar, Allahabad, Agra, Ahmedabad, Barnala, Bathinda, Bengaluru, Belgaum, Bidar, Bagdogra, Bareilly, Chandigarh, Chabua, Chennai, Dehradun, Delhi, Darbhanga, Gorakhpur, Gwalior, Guwahati, Halwara, Hashimara, Hyderabad, Imphal, Jalandhar, Jammu, Jorhat, Jaipur, Jamnagar, Jodhpur, Kanpur, Kolkata, Kalaikunda(Kharagpur), Kochi, Leh, Lucknow, Mumbai, Mohanbari, Mysore, Nal (Bikaner), Nagpur, Ojhar (Nasik), Pathankot, Patna, Pune, Port Blair, Salua (Kharagpur), Srinagar, Suratgarh, Sirsa,Saharanpur, Shillong, Silchar, Sulur (Coimbatore), Thane, Tezpur, Thanjavur, Thiruvananthapuram, Vadodara, Varanasi.
EXAMPLES OF QUESTIONS for complete awareness of contender
Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it.
The awareness of equal corruption will be a better emotional basis for the so-called multiracial commonwealth, of which much is made, than its professed principle-the pursuit of common aims in world politics, aims which are so rarefied that a large volume of artificial political oxygen is needed to keep that body-politic breathing. After all, it cannot be denied that even the United States and the Soviet Union are pursing common aims in world affairs, such as peace, disarmament, democracy, technological progress, as well as freedom as understood by each. But that is not preventing them from doing things which might lead to the destruction or near destruction of mankind. Thus, common aims would seem to be very undependable as guarantees for goodwill and co-operation among nations. On the contrary, a frank admission of being equal sinners would at least encourage charity and discourage moral arrogance. That would be a better foundation for integration for international and multi-racial co-operation.
Q1. The Commonwealth is characterised by (a) the failure of the constituents to work for the same goals (b) the racial nature of its membership (c) uniform lack of moral standards (d) constant redefining of objectives
Q.2 The super powers may claim to have the same laudable objectives, but these (a) do not work earnestly to achieve them (b) undo each other’s efforts (c) still act against the interest of mankind (d) do not see them in the right perspective
Q3. Common goals are desirable, but these (a) do not ensure international co-operation (b) lead to unnecessary tensions (c) encourage rivalry between super powers (d) lead to destruction of mankind
Q4. International co-operation can come about if (a) nations become aware of their own failings and discard (b) charitable organizations are encouraged (c) different races are treated on the basis of equality (d) nations guilty of immoral actions are exposed
Q5. The thrust of the author’s argument is that (a) the Commonwealth has outlived its utility (b) membership of the Commonwealth be restricted to the super powers (c) members are equally responsible for the present state of world politics (d) international peace and co-operation are unattainable.
In each of the following questions, find out which part of the sentence has an error. If there is no mistake, the answer is (d) “No error”.
Q1 He charged me (a)/one hundred rupees for five dozens(b)/oranges of average quality (c). No error (d).
- (b) (c) (d)
Q2. Raju and his friend (a) /were going to see a picture(b) /when they met his common friend (c). No error (d).
(a) (b) (c) (d)
Q3. Until you come(a)/ to class regularly (b)/you will fail (c). No error (d)
(a) (b) (c) (d)
Q4. My father is (a)/ in bad mood (b)/ today(c). No error (d)
(a) (b) (c) (d)
Q5. If I was you (a)/ I would not have(b)/ committed this blunder(c). No error (d).
(a) (b) (c) (d)
Pick out the most effective word from the given words to fill in the blank to make the sentence meaningfully complete.
Q1. Everyone was ________ by surprise when she announced her plan to marry that man.
moved (b) shaken (c) taken (d) disturbed
Q2. She always insisted on the need to ____ between ends and means.
- analyse (b) define (c) distribute (d) distinguish
Q3. He_____ that he would come.
(a) requested (b) said (c) pleaded (d) urged
Q4. He had good ____ over the ancient languages, too.
- authority (b) knowledge (c) command (d) expertise
Q5. Around the head of the running man there was a _______ of bees.
- crowd (b) group (c) flock (d) sword
In each of the following choose the word most similar in meaning to the word given in capitals.
- retard (b) decrease (c) wave (d) flood
- blind (b) astigmatic (c) cross-eyed (d) short-sighted
- strong (b) precious (c) learned (d) courteous
Pick out the word that is most nearly the opposite in meaning to the word given in capitals.
(a) accept (b) retain (c) gain (d) revive
- turbid (b) violent (c) steady (d) turgid
- regular (b) right (c) free (d) rapid
Choose the correct answer. General Awareness
Q.1 Name the first person who went in the space
(a) Yuri Gangarin (b) Neil Armstrong (c) Rakesh Sharma (d) John Glann
Q2. The first Indian woman who won a medal in Olympic is-
(a) PT Usha (b) Shiny Abraham (c) Dala Banerjee (d) Karram Malleswari
Q3. The cricketer who scored the first double century in one day cricket match is-
(a) Vivian Richards (b) Brain Lara (c) Ricky Ponting (d) Sachin Tendulkar
Q4. Lionel Messy is associated with the game of—
(a) Rugby (b) Tennis (c) Football (d) Basketball
Q5. The instrument of measuring intensity of earthquakes is called-
a)Ediograph (b) Pantagraph (c) Ergograph (d) Seismograph
Q1. When simplified (2.43 x 2.43 + 2.43 x7.57 x 2 + 7.57 x 7.57) is equal to-
- 10 (b) 100 (c) 101.89 (d) 200.59
Q2. The sum of ` 6.25 is made up of 80 coins which is either ten paise and five paise. The number of five paise coins are-
- 25 (b) 35 (c) 40 (d) 45
Q3. Three years ago the average age of A & B was 18 years. With C joining them now, the average age becomes 22 years. How old is she?
- 24 years (b) 27 years (c) 28 years (d) 30 years
Q4. The average age of 8 men is increased by 2 years when two of them whose ages are 21 years and 23 years are replaced by two new men. The average age of the two new men is-
(a) 22 years (b) 24 years (c) 28 years (d) 30 years
Q5. Amit sold an umbrella for ` 680, losing 15%. The cost price of the umbrella is-
- ` 782 (b) ` 800 (c) ` 578 (d) None of these
Reasoning and Aptitude Tests
This is a test of your ability to understand words. For each question in the test there are four possible answers: A, B, C, or D. There is only one correct answer for each question.
Read each question carefully and decide which one of the four answers is the best one. Mark your answer on the answer sheet by blacking out the letter that corresponds to your choice.
Now look at the example questions below:
Q1. MAN is to BOY as WOMAN is to
- BABY (B) BRIDE (C) CHILD (D) GIRL
Answer – D
Q2. WATER is to THIRST as FOOD is to
- FAMINE (B) GRIEF (C) HUNGER (D) INDIGE TION S
Answer – C
In these questions, choose the word from the four alternatives (1), (2), (3) and (4) that is most nearly similar in meaning to the word given in CAPITAL letters.
- Apathy (2) Violence (3) Disgust (4) Avenge
- Answer – 3
In the following questions there is a pair of capitalized words followed by four choices marked A, B, C, D. Choose the pair of words whose relationship is most similar to that expressed by the capitalized pair, and mark your choice on your answer sheet.
Q1. COLD : HOT
A handsome : young B beautiful : ugly C summer : spring D complete : total
Answer – B
This is a test of your ability to recognize a form from its pattern, or a pattern from its form. Now look at the example questions below. There is a problem you are to find the form that can be made by folding the cardboard pattern and fitting it together.
Answer – Last
This subtest is designed to test your ability to visualize and manipulate objects in space. In each question, you will be shown a picture of a block. To the right of the pictured block are five choices, each showing a different block. You are required to select the choice containing a block that is just like the pictured block at the left although turned in a different position. In order to arrive at the correct answer, you may have to mentally turn blocks over, turn them around, or turn them both over and around.
The correct answer is D.
This test is designed to measure your ability to see simple figures in complex drawings. Although these figures are fairly well camouflaged, proper visualization should enable you to discern them without too much difficulty.
At the top of each section of this subtest are five figures lettered A, B, C, D, and E. Below these on each page are several numbered drawings. You must determine which lettered figure is contained in each of the numbered drawings.
The correct answer is (B).
Q1.What number should come next in the sequence?
3 6 12 24 48
Answer = 96 (progressions are doubling each time)
Q2. Empty is to full as wet is to?
a. damp b. soaked c. dry d. water e. rain
Answer = c. dry
In the Block Rotation subtest, you will see blocks of different shapes, with cubes, cylinders, and other objects on them. In the examples below, you see six images. The image in the upper left-hand corner shows the model block. One of the five images labeled A through E also shows the model block, but rotated in space. The remaining images show a different block, rotated to various positions in space. Your task is to choose from the images labelled A through E the image that shows the model block rotated in space.